My question
?
If \(x\ \propto \ y\) and \(y\ \propto \ \dfrac{1}{z}\), then which of the following is correct \(1.)\ x\ \propto \ z \\ 2.)\ x\ \propto \ \dfrac{1}{z}\)
what is the sign?it looks like infinity
directly proportional/ inversely proportional
I got 2
how
x(n) X(z) Let y(n) = x(-n) ∞ ∞ ∞ Then Y(z) = ∑ x(-n)z-n = ∑ x(r) z+r = ∑ x(r) (z-1 ) -1 = X (z-1 ) n = -∞ r = -∞ r = -∞
yeah that;s right
haha ...
?
Did I mess up?
i guess it doesn't need that kind of calculation or whatever :D
i understand nothing , i m confusede
;-;
Well thats my work
@sparrow2 did u understand his work, if yes, please pass it to me
using only words :D: if x increases then y increases... if y increases then z decreases so we have if x increasis then z deacreases which is in the second
I'm so sorry I couldn't explain better
but the answer given is the first one
oh then i don;t know
in this video the guy explains it , but i can't understand https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BM7L9dlbS6w
from 1;00
please dont mistake this post as any openstudy feedback and start unnecessary converstion
the answer is 2489
@jigglypuff314
i was thinking using the transitive property thingy
the only thing i guess is we don't know if the operation has that property
do we know anything about that operation?
oh watching the video
ok so that one symbol means directly proportional to... doesn't this means we can write the equations x=ky and y=a/z where k and a are constants so replacing first y with a/z we obtain x=k(a/z) or x=L/z So x is inversely proportion to z
but you said and the video says that is incorrect
I guess the directly proportional thing doesn't mean what it used to mean in algebra
which answer is correct according to u
the one that is incorrect according to the video but I haven't watched the whole video just to the part where he says the one I chose is incorrect
u mean \(x \propto \dfrac1z\) this is correct ?
yep did you understand my reasoning above? like I read it as this we are given x=ky and y=a/z then this means x=k(a/z)=ka/z=L/z so given x=ky and y=a/z then x=L/z
yea i got ur reasoning
u use substitution
yes
thnks
he continues to talk about x directly prop to y and y directly prop to 1/z I don't get how x/(y*z) is a constant from this
Thats what I said at the beginning @mathmath333 :P
if x/y is a constant and yz is a constant then I can say \[\frac{\frac{x}{y}}{yz} \text{ is a constant } \text{ or that } \frac{yz}{\frac{x}{y}} \text{ is a constant } \\ \text{ simplifying } \\ \frac{x}{y^2 z} \text{ and } \frac{y^2 z}{x} \text{ are constants }\]
http://www.themathpage.com/alg/variation.htm this site agrees with us it says varies directly is a transitive relation
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