\(e^{-z}\) is never 0
so do we end up solving \(e^{2z}+1=0\) ?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
hmm how do we do that though?
OpenStudy (rational):
let \(e^z = t\)
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
ohh righttt
OpenStudy (anonymous):
and then t = +-i?
OpenStudy (rational):
Yep!
OpenStudy (anonymous):
ohh so e^z = +-i
OpenStudy (rational):
Yes, look at the argand plane
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
so z = +- π/2?
OpenStudy (rational):
Nope, lets look at the argand plane
OpenStudy (anonymous):
okay
OpenStudy (rational):
|dw:1455945985685:dw|
OpenStudy (anonymous):
is that the |z| < 2π part?
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OpenStudy (rational):
|dw:1455946064622:dw|
OpenStudy (rational):
e^z = i
e^(x+iy) = i
e^x[cos(y) + isin(y)] = i
compare real parts both sides :
e^x cosy = 0
this gives x = 0, y = +- pi/2
therefore z = x + iy = 0+- ipi/2
OpenStudy (anonymous):
ohh okay that makes sense
OpenStudy (rational):
Notice, two solutions are +- ipi/2
not +- pi/2
OpenStudy (anonymous):
yup
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OpenStudy (rational):
you should get two more solutions by solving
e^z = -i
OpenStudy (anonymous):
would the two solutions just come out as +- πi/2 again?