Just need a little help understanding how to do these simple set theory proofs
Questions are here
So i'm thinking we can use x as an element of A and show that it is not equal for a counter-example, but I haven't done a proof for these before
\(\overline{A-B} = \overline{A}-\overline{B}\) Counterexample : U = {1, 2, 3} A = {1, 2} B = {2, 3} \(\overline{A-B}=?\) \(\overline{A}-\overline{B}=?\)
So one would be: A' - B' = {3}?
and (A - B)' = {2,3}
I'm not sure about the first one
{3} is not the same set as {2, 3} so first statement is false
oh yeah, I see that
so when proving we can use the same method?
Counterexample is for disproving a statement
like in the next one A-B = {1} and B'-A' = {1} is not a valid proof?
We need to use other techniques for proving
Showing one example for which the statement is true is NOT a proof.
Alright
Has to hold for all cases right?
But, Showing one COUNTER example for which the statement is NOT true is sufficient for disproving.
So, we are good with part a proof. We have proved that the given statement does not hold by providing a counterexample
Any ideas on part b ?
can we use laws of logic? like go LHS = RHS?
Yes, recall below relationship : \[A-B = A\cap \overline{B}\]
okay so we have to make that look like B' ^ A?
Oh sorry, you said that
\[A-B = A\cap \overline{B}\tag{1}\] \[\overline{B}-\overline{A} = \overline{B} \cap \overline{\overline{A} } = \overline{B} \cap A\tag{2} \]
from (1) and (2), can we conclude \(A-B = \overline{B}-\overline{A}\) ?
yes
Okie got it :)
For the second group can we use the same type of counter example?
For the second group, part a looks like a correct statement
So logic laws again?
Kind of looks like a distributive law
yeah lets do part b first because it is easy
alrighty
part b : \(C\cup (A-B) =(C\cup A)-(C\cup B)\) Counterexample : U = {1, 2, 3,4} A = {1, 2} B = {1, 3} C = {1, 4} \(C\cup (A-B)=?\) \((C\cup A)-(C\cup B)=?\)
first one is = {1,2,4)?
yes
second one is {2}?
Yes, they are not same; so, we're done !
Hooray :D
so the logic law one now
we use the A - B = A ^ B' thing again right?
kind of confused here
Isn't it supposed to be A - B = A union B' ?
not intersection?
Yeah try this : \[C\cap (A-B) = C\cap (A \cap \overline{B})\tag{1}\] \[(C\cap A) - (C\cap B) \\= (C\cap A)\cap \overline{ (C\cap B)} \\=(C\cap A)\cap (\overline{C}\cup \overline{B}) \\= [(C\cap A)\cap \overline{C}] \cup [(C\cap A)\cap \overline{B}]\\=[\emptyset ]\cup [(C\cap A)\cap \overline{B}]\\=(C\cap A)\cap \overline{B} \]
what can we conclude from (1) and the last line ?
RHS = LHS
so true, thanks ganeshie
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