Difficult DE Question: Determine all values of x0 and y0 such that the IVP for the the DE given below with initial condtions y(x0) = y0 is guaranteed to have a unique solution. Then, confirm the prediction by finding and analyzing the general solution
\[\frac{ dy }{ dx } = \frac{ 1+\cos(x) }{2-\sin(y) }\]
The uniqueness theorem should apply, for part one, check if the R.H.S and the derivative of the right hand side w.r.t. y are continuous on a region containing the IC.
How can I automatically tell if this is continuous: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=d%2Fdy+of+(1%2Bcos(x))%2F(2-sin(y)) It just seems to make things a bit more complicated.
let \[f(x,y) := \frac{1+\cos(x)}{2-\sin(y)}\] then f(x,y) can only fail to be cont. if ?
remember, sin and cos are continuous functions.
I don't understand. Am I being daft? It fails to be continuous where this denominator would equate to 0. However, arcsin(2) isn't a thing.
exactly! but \[|\sin(x)|<1\]
so it's continuous
now \[f_y\]
fy? Partial with respect to y?
Yeah, so the fy is always continuous. This means we'll have a general solution wherever. Let's tell for uniqueness by doing a partial w.r.t y. Correct?
Would I have to do this partial? It doesn't seem fun to do by hand. Is there any trick?
sry, was afk.
Yes, partial wrt y.
Ugh, well, if somehow with divine intervention and lots of algebra, I obtained this, I would see that this is well continuous because the denominator is never going to be 0. (see Wolfram Alpha link above). I would state there is a unique solution.
Correct?
yep. Is it really that messy to do?
Actually no, I should have just attempted it.
But how does this general solution of \[2y + \cos(y)=x+\sin(x)\] show anything?
that's how it is sometimes, and others, it's messy!
Solved simply by separating and integrating with respect to variable.
I'm not sure, it's exist and is smooth.
the original analysis gives all the important answers.
You're the best with Differential Equations! Thanks.
np
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