FOR THE LOVE OF PETE WENTZ CAN SOMEBODY PLEASE HELP ME SOLVE THIS did the title get your attention? 4g^2 - 32g = 0
you sure have been typing for a long time.....
In these types of equations, we can apply what is called "common factor" or as you might, divide and multiply the whole expression by one convenient rational number that includes "g". \[4g^2-32g=0 \iff \frac{ 4g }{ 4g }(4g^2-32g)=0 \] This is a valid transformation for two reasons, that \(1(4g^2-32g)=(4g^2-32g)\) and because \(\frac{ 4g }{ 4g } =1\), which means that we have not altered the equation, just rewritten some values to make the work more simple, so, by distributive property we obtain: \[4g(\frac{ 4g^2 }{ 4g }-\frac{ 32g }{ 4g })=0 \iff 4g(g-8)=0\] From the hankelian property, we can fragment this las equality into two much more simple expressions: \[4g=0 \] \[g-8=0 \] So, solving these two equations will solve the original problem equation.
the first one isn't really a valid answer thought is it? because 0 can't be divided. so the only real answer to this would be g=8 right?
(btw that was amazing)
Oh, zero can be divided, think of it this way, if you have no candies and you want to share it with 7 friends, how many do each get? The answer is no one gets any candy, so, any number that divides zero will yield a result of zero. \[\frac{ 0 }{ k }=0 \] Problems begin when zero is the one to divide a number, implying, that you have candies, but you have to share them with no one , how many candies does each person get? Nobody really knows, but in mathematics we don't agree on a result, we prove it and no one has really figures what any number divided by zero is equal to. \[\frac{ k }{ 0 }=undef.\]
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