question below
is \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(\frac{ n }{ 1 + n })^n = e\]
@mathmath333 here u go
r u asking its derivation or true or false
as per wolfram the answer is \(\large \dfrac{1}{e}\)
yeah all because \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty }(\frac{ 1+n }{ n })^{-n} = \frac{ 1 }{e } \]
actually its \( \large \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty }\large \left(\dfrac{ 1+n }{ n }\right)^{-n} = e\)
now how is tht possible??
wolfram gave it
as per my experience wolfram is a supercomp and 99.99% correct
nope wolfram is showing 1/e
@mathmath333 we got the values of different questions lol
|dw:1458943585393:dw|
its the opposite of what u posted
@mathmath333 thanks bruh..I guess I got it ..... though u might get notifications after like 7 hrs after my roommate is awake -_-
i got it now
hold on .... why do we do tht ??
like to solve tht we convert it in the form \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(\frac{ 1+n }{ n })^{-n}~~~then ~~we~~get~~the ~value~~\frac{ 1 }{ e }\]
@mathmath333 u gone -_-
cant we solve tht without converting ??? :/
@mathmath333 nevermind....this time I am sure.... thanks again :))
it wont even let me Go Pro >_<
do u understand that \(\text{"exp"}\)
yupppp
it means \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} e^{n \log\frac{ n }{ 1+n }}\]
i forgot that "exp" hence facing difficulty understanding
wht would be the next step ??
@mathmath333 u gotta be kidding me -_- *facepalm
@mathmath333 so it would be \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{ e^{n \log n} }{ e^{n \log(n +1)} }\]
lemme know if it makes sense
\(\large \color{black}{\begin{align} & \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left((\dfrac{ n }{ 1 + n }\right))^{n} \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \text{exp}\log\left(\dfrac{ n }{ 1 + n }\right)^{n} \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \text{exp}n\log\left(\dfrac{ n }{ 1 + n }\right) \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & \text{exp} \left[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} n\log\left(\dfrac{ n }{ 1 + n }\right) \right]\hspace{.33em}\\~\\ \end{align}}\) try this
@mathmath333 tbh I m blank ..so u need to walk me through this
\(\large \color{black}{\begin{align} & \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left((\dfrac{ n }{ 1 + n }\right))^{n} \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & =\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \text{exp}\left(\log\left(\dfrac{ n }{ 1 + n }\right)^{n}\right) \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ &= \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \text{exp}\left(n\log\left(\dfrac{ n }{ 1 + n }\right)\right) \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ & =\text{exp} \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left(n\log\left(\dfrac{ n }{ 1 + n }\right) \right) \hspace{.33em}\\~\\ \end{align}}\)
okkk go onnn .....I got it till here
@mathmath333 really thanks a lot.... I got it ..... this time its solved for sure ..... again thanks a lot :)) I really appreciate it
bloody latex
lol i was typing, latex betrayed me
just apply L'hopital rest is cake walk
lol yeah .... :P
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