Is this algebra trickery or math?
This looks like calculus well with the 0 to 1 interval
This isn't algebra sorry. This is just understanding why a integral evaluates to this answer.
With the complex equation
Hmm. This is because e^(1-j2pi*k) evaluates to e^(1)*e^(-j2pi*k). This e^(-j2pi*k) evaluates to 1, why?
Well I can say that you are plugging one in for some variable? I don't know which and you subtracting it from which you get 0 your finding the integral and using the evaluation theorem
t is variable there
Yeah your right
Sorry!
You plug in 1 into the t and everything else either gets simplified or stays the same like the jk2pi
The trick is this identity when k is an integer. \[e^{jk2 \pi} =1\] Why is this true? Well if you know this identity: \[e^{jk2 \pi} = \cos(k2\pi) + j \sin(k2\pi)\] Now you can see we're looking at evaluating some integer multiples of a period, so it's the same as if you didn't move at all from k=0: \[e^{jk2 \pi} = \cos(k2\pi) + j \sin(k2\pi) = \cos(0) + j \sin (0) = 1\]
That's totally correct, can't believe I always neglect that identity! @Kainui !
Thanks for showing this @Kainui I learned something new!
Haha glad I could help! :P Yeah that identity is pretty awesome, you can use it to derive a ton of trig identities, like the angle sum identities because it turns trig functions into exponents, and exponent rules are much easier to play with I think.
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