Please help. WILL MEDAL! Inverse functions @Hero @sleepyjess @jim_thompson5910 @robtobey @Erak
Determine if \[f(x) = \frac{ 1 }{ 1-x }\] and \[g(x) = \frac{ x-1 }{ x }\] are inverse functions by computing their compositions.
\[\frac{ 1 }{ 1-\frac{ (x-1) }{ x } }\]
\[\frac{ 1 }{ \frac{ x-x+1 }{ x } }\]
\[\frac{ x }{ 1 }\]
x
you've shown that f(g(x)) = x for all x in the domain
now you need to show if g(f(x)) = x is true
The answer on my answer sheet says "yes" but I don't know why something is yes or no.
oh ok.
The original question is "are f and g inverses of each other" the answer is "Yes" I'm assuming your teacher wants you to show why "yes" is the correct answer
\[\frac{ \frac{ 1 }{ 1-x }-1 }{ \frac{ 1 }{ 1-x } }\]
I don't know what would make the answer yes, though.
simplify that last expression you wrote
\[\frac{ \frac{ 1-(1-x) }{ 1-x } }{ \frac{ 1 }{ 1-x } }\]
\[\frac{ x(1-x) }{ 1-x }\]
x
So I got x both ways. Is that significant?
so because f(g(x)) = x g(f(x)) = x this means that f and g are inverses of each other
So if I don't get x than they are not inverse?
if you got f(g(x)) to be equal to something other than x, then f and g wouldn't be inverses of each other. or if you got g(f(x)) to be equal to something other than x, then f and g wouldn't be inverses of each other.
So if I don't get x than they are not inverse?
if f and g are inverses of each other, then f(g(x)) = x and g(f(x)) = x for all defined x values in the domain
`So if I don't get x than they are not inverse?` yes
Thank You!
no problem
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