True or false (precalculus)?
For a trigonometric function, y = f(x), then x = F^-1(y).
In order for a function to have an inverse, it must be `one-to-one`. Meaning: It must pass the `horizontal line test`.
So this is false, because it is not always true?
So think about your crazy squiggly graphs... and whether or not that holds true.
You're right, it's false. It's false because the trig functions are `periodic`, ya? They repeat y values over and over.
yea - like the sine curve which is a repeating wave
But there's such a thing as inverse trig functions... how come?
Ah that's a great question! :) If you take your sine function for example, and restrict it to `one full period` in a careful way,|dw:1468877170293:dw|then it will pass the horizontal line test, ya? :)
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