I need an explanation for these steps.. Please check out the attachment.
Your multiplying itself times itself so any piece on the first should equal the same on the other.
But why did he chose x^(n-2)?
Ok so you get the thing they are saying about 2x^3+4x=ax^2+bx means it must be that a=2 and b=4?
And you get the n choose k part on (1+x)^2n? If you just want to know why they choose that tern, I need to see more of what you are doing.
It's a problem related to binomial coefficients. The actual question is: If (1+x)^n = C(n,0) + C(n,1)x + C(n,2)x^2 + ........ + C(n,n)x^n , Prove that : C(n.0)C(n,2) + C(n,1)C(n,3) + C(n,2)C(n,4) + ........ + C(n,n-2)C(n,n) = 2n!/(n-2)!(n+2)!
ah this is induction then
So they will assume it is true for \(n-1\) and the further that to get to it being true for \(n\), i.e they assume the first x^{n-1} coefficients are the same, and use that to show all the coefficients are the same.
So they will assume it is true for n−1 and the further that to get to it being true for n, i.e they assume the first {n-1} coefficients are the same, and use that to show all n coefficients are the same.
Your first "why?" is answered by the binomial theorem http://www.regentsprep.org/Regents/math/algtrig/ATP4/bintheorem.htm if you have \( (a+b)^n \), the coefficient for the \(b^m\) term is nCm (n choose m) In your problem \( (1+x)^{2n}\), the coefficient for the \(x^{n-2}\) terms is 2n Choose n-2 which is calculated as \[ (2n)C(n-2)= \frac{(2n)!}{(n-2)!(2n-(n-2))!}= \frac{(2n)!}{(n-2)!(n+2)!} \] By symmetry this also equals 2n Choose n+2.
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