Question about binomial theorem is in comments (due to a need of correct markup).
This isn't necessarily true. Consider \(n=1\) and \(k=0\).
\[\left(\begin{matrix}n \\ k\end{matrix}\right)<\left(\begin{matrix}n \\ k+1\end{matrix}\right)\] if and only if 0 <= k < 1/2(n-1)
Sorry, @HolsterEmission, it seems that another post of mine, where I tell that it is 0 <= k < 1/2(n-1) did not send.
n! n! ---- < ------- k!(n-k)! (k+1)! (n - k -1)! k!(n-k)! > k+1)! (n - k -1)! we should be able to get a relation between k and n from this.
@welshfella should we take the base as k or as n? This time I am confused because of two letters...
Hey, what's the question ?
I'm taking it to be Zybergs first post...
- proof of that inequality
Oh I see... nice :)
k!(n-k)! > (k+1)! (n - k -1)! simplifying above should do yeah
k!(n-k)! > (k+1)! (n - k -1)! k!(n-k)! > k!(k+1) (n-k-1)! (n - k)! > (k+1)(n - k - 1)! Now right the left side as (n-k)(n - k - 1)! and you are nearly done.
Oh, so it won't even require real induction? The thing that is confusing me is that I usually have to use induction on theorems that have only one unknown...
@ganeshie8 it's from "Elementary Numbers Theory" book, you recommended to me ;)
I think we may use induction by inducting on "n"
You may start by proving the given statement is true for n=3
Notice that we're not interested in n < 3 because there is not integer "k" that satisfies the given condition 0 <= k < 1/2(n-1) when n < 3.
Yes, I tried to do that, but then I need to set up a value for k too, yes? How would that work with induction step then? (I understand setting base to be n = 3, k = 0)
You don't have to worry about "k" at all as we're inducting on "n"
Let me say again, we're inducting on "n", not k.
But placing the value of n = 3 would get us: (3-k)! > (k+1)(2-k)!, how would we check, if it's true then?
Without knowing k, is it possible to rework (2-k)! somehow, to prove to be true?
use the given condition : 0 <= k < 1/2(n-1) plugin n=3 and see what values of "k" we must check
But wouldn't that account as "worrying" for k? k would become 0, but what about induction step? What k would be for n = r? n = r+1?
We are still not worrying about "k" as part of the induction process : step1) show the statement is true for n=3 step2) assume that the statement is true for n = r step3) prove the statement is trur for n = r+1 whenever step2 is true.
For n=r, we assume that the given statement is true for all "k" that satisfy 0 <= k < 1/2(r-1)
We just have to follow the rules when using induction to prove
Proof happens pretty much automatically
so: (t - k)! > (k+1)(t - k - 1)! Multiplying by t - k + 1 or something like that?
Yep, also note that we're only proving below part : If 0 <= k < 1/2(n-1), then \(\left(\begin{matrix}n \\ k\end{matrix}\right)<\left(\begin{matrix}n \\ k+1\end{matrix}\right)\).
We need to prove the converse of that too
Ah yes that is what I was attempting to do - the converse.
i misread the question really
You are right about that... wouldn't have thought of it ;) But how would we prove converse of that?
I think if you further simplify: (n - k)! > (k+1)(n - k - 1)! (n-k)(n-k-1)! > (k+1)(n ik-1)! n - k > k + 1 k < (1/2)(n- 1)
and therefore 0 <= k < 1/2(n-1)
Okay, thank you very much! :) I think that I need a break now, for not noticing that... Ehh! Thank you for help as well, @ganeshie8! Decided to finish the book until the end of the year and so far it's quite fun (though I have been jumping all around of it and only now I started doing things systematically).
yw I'm going for a break too!
Its my favorite book on NT. Good to see you're enjoying it too :)
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