Question in comment
Did I do this right? \[\frac{ \frac{ 1 }{ (x+h) ^{2} } -\frac{ 1 }{ x ^{2} }}{ h } = *\frac{ (x+h)^{2}x ^{2} }{ (x+h)^{2}x ^{2} }=\frac{ x ^{2}-(x+h)^{2} }{ h*(x+h)^{2}x ^{2} }\]
got more to do unfortunately
good so far?
here is a tip for this one ignore the \(h\) in the denominator for a moment and work only with \[\frac{1}{(x+h)^2}-\frac{1}{x^2}\]
oh actually you are doing just fine keep on going
\[\frac{ x ^{2}-(x+h)^{2} }{ h*(x+h)^{2}x ^{2} }\] is perfect leave the denominator alone, keep it in factored form but do work out \(x^2-(x+h)^2\) in the top
You are calculating a "difference quotient." You might want to look up "difference Quotient," both for the definition and examples of how to find a "difference quotient." A quick review of "lowest common denominator" may also help you.
x^2-x^2+2xh+h^2 for the top?
This is basically a problem in algebra in which you're supposed to simplify as much as possible. Yes, you've got that (numerator) partially correct, except for 2 sign errors.
You MUST evaluate that square of a binomail first, and then negate each and every one of the three terms.
binomial, I meant.
I'm lost... can we start at the beginning and can someone tell me which step to do first?
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