how can proving this ? e^(pi*i) = -1
so this mean that e^(pi*i) = i^2 make ln of both sides ln e^(pi*i) = ln i^2 (pi*i)ln e = 2ln i pi*i = 2ln i divide both sides by 2 (pi*i)/2 = ln i can being this really true that logarithm natural of ,,i" is equal (i*pi)/2 ?
@TheSmartOne @Kainui @mathmate @ganeshie8 @welshfella
Use the expansion of trigonometric and exponential functions. \(e^{x}=1+x/1!+x^2/2!+...\) \(e^{i\pi}=1+(i\pi)/1!+(i\pi)^2/2!+...\) \(=1+i^2(\pi)^2/2!+...+(i\pi)/1!+(i\pi)^3/3!+...\) \(=1-(\pi)^2/2!+...+i(\pi)/1!-i(\pi)^3/3!+...\) \(=cos(\pi)+(i)sin(\pi)\) \(=-1+0\) \(=-1\)
ty. @mathmate this is really GREAT - thank you very much !!!
You're welcome! :)
Infinite sums is the only way I have seen it derived.
hi
hello
so you accept it now how is here proven ?
It is correct that \(e^{i\pi} = -1\), but it is not true that \(\ln(-1) = i\pi\), because it is not unique. I could also have said that \(\ln(-1) = 3i\pi = 5i\pi = \cdots\) So because of domain problems, we only think about logarithms in real numbers. Otherwise, it leads to very contradictory results.
but in place of (-1) i used i^2
So exponential functions in complex numbers are OK because they are unique, but logarithmic functions cannot be used at the elementary level.
Here is another way to think why logarithms should not be used for complex numbers: We know that \(i = 1i = i^4i = i^5\). Now because \(i = i^5\) we can say that \(\ln(i) = \ln(i^5)\). So \(\ln(i) = 5 \ln(i)\) and finally \(\ln(i) = 0\). But \(e^0 \ne i\) so this is false.
can i reposting these all on OS newly please - bc. this your opinion about this is very very interesting
Parth this is possible or not reposting it ?
Yes, please do.
ok. but how ?
I can do it for you.
can you tel me how ?bc. this is ohhh. ok please do it than now
thank you very much
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