help please with number 5
We know that \(-1\le \sin n \le 1\). (And \(-1\le \cos n \le 1\)) So, intuitively, \(\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{n}{n^2+1}\right)\sin n\)
is equal to 0.
is that the squeeze theorem ? and why is the sin n outside?
Oh, good that you mentioned, yes, we can verify this through squeeze trm.
\(\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{-n}{n^2+1}\le \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n\sin n}{n^2+1}\le \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n}{n^2+1}\)
well, you know the limits on the left and right are equal to what ?
hmm im sorry i got lost D:
Do you see why I set \(\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{-n}{n^2+1}\le \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n\sin n}{n^2+1}\le \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n}{n^2+1}\) ??
(because \(-1\le\sin n \le 1\), ... right?)
oh right
Can you find the limits on the left and right ends?
(You can do it intuitively, or use L'Hospital's Rule)
hmm i was thinkin that we can multiply by the greatest common factor right ?
Which common factor, where ?
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