Help, calculus
What would this simplify to?\[\Large \frac{ d }{ dx }( \int\limits_{\cos(66x)}^{1223}t^2+\ln t~dt )\]
This is sort of an amazing result. Think about how you evaluate ANY definite integral. What if those weird limits wire jsut simple numbers? What would you do? 1) Find the antiderivative. 2) Evaluate at the limits. 3) Deal with the pesky additional derivative. If \(\dfrac{d}{dt}H(t) = h(t)\), then Fundamental theorem: \(\dfrac{d}{dx}\left(\int_{f(x)}^{g(x)}h(t)\;dt\right) = \dfrac{d}{dx}\left(H(t)\mid_{f(x)}^{g(x)}\right) = \) \( = \dfrac{d}{dx}\left[H(g(x)) - H(f(x))\right]= h(g(x)) - h(f(x))\) Look at it until it soaks in. It's pretty much what you have been doing with integrals all along.
Small correction on that last line:\[= \dfrac{d}{dx}\left[H(g(x)) - H(f(x))\right]= h(g(x))g'(x) - h(f(x))f'(x)\] What do you think Steve? Still confused on this one?
Whoops, I did forget the Chain Rule, didn't I?! I was tired of coding. The REAL point of the demonstration was H(t). We don't have to find it. We don't really even care if it exists. Just play like it's there and move right to the end! (as correctly noted by zepdrix).
Suppose that \(\color{black}{\displaystyle \int f(x)\mathrm{d}x=F(x)+C }\). Then, \(\color{black}{\displaystyle \left.\int_{b}^{g(t)} f(x)\mathrm{d}x=F(x)\right|_{x=b}^{x=g(t)}=F(g(t))-F(b) }\). What is the derivative of \(\color{black}{\displaystyle F(g(t))-F(b) }\)? By chain rule, knowing that \(\color{black}{\displaystyle F'(x)=f(x)}\), it should be \(\color{black}{\displaystyle f'(g(t))\times g'(t) }\). So, you have \(\color{black}{\displaystyle \frac{d}{dt}\left(\int_{b}^{g(t)} f(x)\mathrm{d}x\right)=f'(g(t))\times g'(t) }\).
Now, suppose that both limits were functions of t, then by the same logic you have: \(\color{black}{\displaystyle \frac{d}{dt}\left(\int_{k(t)}^{p(t)} f(x)\mathrm{d}x\right)=f'(p(t))\times p'(t) -f'(k(t))\times k'(t) }\)
Or, if your limits of integration are flipped as follows: \(\color{black}{\displaystyle \frac{d}{dt}\left(\int_{g(t)}^{b} f(x)\mathrm{d}x\right)=\frac{d}{dt}\left(-\int_{b}^{g(t)} f(x)\mathrm{d}x\right) =-f'(g(t))g'(t)}\)
this is really not that complicated
first change \[( \int\limits_{\cos(66x)}^{1223}t^2+\ln t~dt )\] to \[-\int\limits_{1223)}^{\cos(66x)}t^2+\ln t~dt \]
then, where you see a \(t\) put \(\cos(66x)\) and finally multiply by the derivative of \(\cos(66x)\)
as we say in math english, the derivative of the integral is the integrand aka the fundamental theorem of calculus
Thank you all who replied! I think I understand it a little more now. I have a question: so the b value of the integral can be completely ignored since it's a constant?
yes, its a constant so if you plug in and take derivative it turns to 0
Yes, because with b in one of the limits, you are differentiating F(b) (which is a constant) with respect to t, and derivative of a constant is ....
zero! Ah thank you.
yw
Basically, the point here (as other people expressed before me) is (1) you really don't care what the integral of this function would be, (2) the chain rule for whatever function is in the limits of the integral.
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