Which of the following describes the rights and legal standing of a European villein?

They worked the land on behalf of their lord but did not receive wages.
They were able to improve their position by learning a trade, but had to serve their lord for at least 10 years.
They could buy land from a landlord, but they had to provide the lord with military service.
They were forced to sell all of their land to the landlord, but their house was provided for them.

I know it's defiantly not C. Please someone help!

Question

Which of the following describes the rights and legal standing of a European villein?

 They worked the land on behalf of their lord but did not receive wages.
 They were able to improve their position by learning a trade, but had to serve their lord for at least 10 years.
 They could buy land from a landlord, but they had to provide the lord with military service.
 They were forced to sell all of their land to the landlord, but their house was provided for them.

I know it's defiantly not C. Please someone help!

julyahx1 · Answer

@3mar @zepdrix @Yato_Gami

3mar · Answer

I really don't know. Sorry for disappointing you. Sorry I am not so good at it!!
History isn't really my strongest subject, sorry!

julyahx1 · Answer

its okay 3mar

julyahx1 · Answer

Yato_Gami what do u think?

yato_gami · Answer

Hmm. This one is a bit tricky.

yato_gami · Answer

Well a villein is a class of the feudal serf. It stands between a peasant and a slave.

julyahx1 · Answer

so ur saying " They worked the land on behalf of their lord but did not receive wages.
" is the answer?

kittiwitti1 · Answer

A villein was an early form of serf.  His relationship to his lord was classically feudal, in that the villein owed the lord labor, which might be rendered on the lord's land, as military service, or possibly as crops from the land he (the villein) farmed.

A villein's relationship to the land was complicated: he did not precisely own it, because he could not sell it, nor leave it -- he was "bound" to the land he farmed.  But on the other hand, he had a traditional right to it, and the lord was generally constrained not to sell the land without the villein in possession.

julyahx1 · Answer

that souprce u posted has different answers then the one from me. so its not valid for me

yato_gami · Answer

Yes, a villein can not leave the land without it's lords' consent.

julyahx1 · Answer

i still don't now what ur saying the answer is.. is it " They worked the land on behalf of their lord but did not receive wages." did u say?

kittiwitti1 · Answer

source: http://openstudy.com/study#/updates/53c44cf0e4b00f624a929517 Villeins were hired to work on land they could not own, but housing was provided. I assume food was also provided with lodging.

kittiwitti1 · Answer

$$\color{aliceblue}{\text{The source I posted was removed due to inaccuracy.}}$$

julyahx1 · Answer

so is " They worked the land on behalf of their lord but did not receive wages." the answer??

yato_gami · Answer

I think I could be that one too. The lord would actually tax his villein as heavily and make them work as much as he pleased.

kittiwitti1 · Answer

They were not paid, but lodging (and I assume food?) was provided in exchange for farming the land. So a trade-off of sorts? But not exactly any wages being paid...

kittiwitti1 · Answer

As far as I've read it appears to be like civil service/manual labor due to debt/something owed. So not really a paid work.

julyahx1 · Answer

yes a was correct. thank you for the sources ! (:

julyahx1 · Answer

thanks guys

yato_gami · Answer

Yea it's kinda like a trade.

yato_gami · Answer

No problem! I'm glad we could be of help to you! ^_^

julyahx1 · Answer

(:

kittiwitti1 · Answer

$$\color{seagreen}{\text{No problem, happy OpenStudying }:)~\checkmark}$$