Why is it impossible for a function to have fewer values in its domain than in its range?

Question

haaaow · Answer

@sammixboo @sweetburger

haaaow · Answer

all i know about the question is that the domain is x and the range is y. everything else im confused on

mathmale · Answer

Review the definitions of "domain."  There are several.

Note that a relationship is NOT a function unless no numeral in the domain shows up more than once.  If x = 2 and y = 3, fine.  But if you also have x=2 and y =5, no soap.  More than one y value for one x value rules out this being a "function."

mathmale · Answer

Please drop the idea that "the domain is x and the range is y."  That's partially true, but misses important points.  The domain of a function is the set of all input values for which the function is defined.

mathmale · Answer

We say "a function is one-on-one."  This means that there are never 2 y-values for any 1 x-value.

haaaow · Answer

i was just thinking that, which i why i was going to say the domain is LIKE x, but that sounds weird

haaaow · Answer

thank you

haaaow · Answer

OMG i get it now