CALCULUS - NATURAL LOGS AND INTEGRATION WITH DEFINITE INTERVALS
\[\int\limits_{1}^{e} \frac{ (1+\ln x)^2 }{ x }\]
evaluate the definite integral. I tried taking a stab at it by substitution by letting u= 1+lnx and du=1/x but i got stuck there
any ideas?
Gimme a moment
sure
forgot to add dx btw
Let's try u-sub \[\int\limits\limits_{1}^{e} \frac{ (1+\ln x)^2 }{ x }dx\] Let \(u=ln(x)\), \(du=\frac{1}{x}dx\) This makes the lower bound \(u=ln(x)=ln(1)=0, \) and upper bound \(u=ln(e)=1.\) \[\int\limits\limits_{0}^{1} (u+1)^2 du\] u-sub again and it's done
um im lost. so then i would do \[[(\ln (1)+1)^2 - (\ln (0)+1)^2]\]
Hold on lemme write it myself
integrating the intervals 0 and 1 into f(a)-f(b) right? but my book shows \[\frac{ 7 }{ 3 }\] as the answer
alright
thanks!
Cheers
There is a pattern here, there often is, that obviates the need for any substitution Note that \(\dfrac{d}{dx} (1 + \ln x )^3 = 3 (1 + \ln x )^2 \cdot \dfrac{1}{x}\) So you integral can be re-written as \(\int\limits_1^e ~ \dfrac{d}{dx} (\frac{1}{3} (1 + \ln x )^3) ~ dx\) \(= \left . \frac{1}{3} (1 + \ln x )^3 ~ \right|_1^e\) That process also shows that the sub \(y = 1 + ln x, dy = \dfrac{1}{x} dx\) (so that \(dx = x ~ dy\) !!) is better ......... though clearly you don't need to plod through any substitution at all if you see the pattern :)
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