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Question

ilovepuppieslol · Answer

@ShadowLegendX

ilovepuppieslol · Answer

@sammixboo  @Directrix

ilovepuppieslol · Answer

@zepdrix  @sweetburger  pls help guys

kittiwitti1 · Answer

I'm pretty sure LN=LN is because they're the same line...

seratul · Answer

Aka, reflexive property

ilovepuppieslol · Answer

ty

seratul · Answer

What do you think would be next?

ilovepuppieslol · Answer

im not sure

seratul · Answer

Well, we have two same angles and one same side, so what would that be?

seratul · Answer

Well, i'll just tell you. It would be Side-Angle-Angle congruence theorem, aka SAA

kittiwitti1 · Answer

As Seratul said, SAA theorem makes the two triangles congruent... thus, the third angle pair should also have congruence.

kittiwitti1 · Answer

by law of congruent/similar triangles.

ilovepuppieslol · Answer

im so confused

kittiwitti1 · Answer

Where are you confused?

kittiwitti1 · Answer

Starting over:
Blank 1) Reflexive property (the measure of a line equals itself);
Blank 2) SAA, Side Angle Angle theorem, makes the two triangles congruent;
Blank 3) As a result, the congruent triangles have congruent angles and respective side lengths. Thus you have LM = NO

kittiwitti1 · Answer

SAA comes from two things - the fact that you are given two congruent angle pairs, $\angle ONL=\angle MLN$ and the right angles $\angle O$ and $\angle M$... and the shared side length LN, which is equal to itself by the Reflexive property

kittiwitti1 · Answer

does that make more sense or?

kittiwitti1 · Answer

@ILovePuppiesLol are you still stuck o: ?