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quick euler's formula question
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\[e^{-i n (\pi/2)}= (-i)^{n}\]
how to show that these two are equal?
You can go at this using one of the most spectacular of all maths ID's: \(e^{i \pi} + 1 = 0\) Not only worth remembering but actually hard to forget once you've seen it. So split the sides out, invert it to get the negaive exponent, and then take the n/2 th root to get the finished product You can also go one step further up the food chain. Start with Euler's formula: \(e^{ix} = \cos x + i \sin x\) Sub in \(x = \frac{\pi}{2}\) and go from there .... same kinda steps.
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