A 0.050 Kg yo-yo is swung in a vertical circle on the end of its 0.30 m long string at the slowest speed that the yo-yo can have. A) What is the minimum speed of the yo-yo at the bottom of the circular path to keep the circular motion. B) What’s the minimum velocity of the yo-yo at the top of the yoyo’s circular to maintain its circular path?
I’m here
A quick glance at my notes shows the use of: \[\Sigma F = ma _{c} = T + mg\] \[a _{c} = \frac{ V^2 }{ r }\] So you can find velocity
But i don’t have the velocity?
What happened?
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Yes
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Wait.... if the yo-yo is at the bottom...wouldn’t that make the bottom side of the circle final velocity?
Energy is relative. As are most things in classical physics. we look at total mechanical energy (E) at the bottom of the cycle: \(E = \frac{1}{2} m v_i^2\)
Ok sir
To be clearer: \(E_1 = \frac{1}{2} m v_1^2\)
Initial energy?
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Now, at the top we have total energy \(\frac{1}{2}m v_2^2 + \text{ "some potential energy"}\)
At the top of the circular path, we have gravitational potential energy. No?
we have increased the gravitational potential energy of the yo-yo
Ok
by how much have we increased it's GPE?
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Twice since there’s 2r? Idk :/
🤓 GPE is \(mgh\) so from the bottom of the circle to the top the particle gains this potential energy: \(m g (2r)\) I think that is what you meant
Yeah. Lol
you are lost, right ?!
Kinda...
Oh so that’s where the 2r came from... i was having hard time trying to figure out where did that 2r come from. So GPE = meh got it .
OK, so I am guessing you've been given some formulae for acceleration in a circle. like \(a = - \dfrac{v^2}{r}\) so at the top of the circle you say that : \(a = - \dfrac{v^2}{r} = g = 0\)
Mechanical energy is made up of two forces. potential energy which is the gravitational potentional energy and the kinetic energy which is the 1/2 mv^2/r
Yeah that’s the formula i’ve Been given but go on.
typo: \(a = - \dfrac{v^2}{r} - g = 0\)
ignore the minus signs. think about forces and inertia [ie the reluctance of mass to comply with forces]
Ok so \[A = v^2/r + g ?\]
If we take the negative signs out?
I’m here daddy :)
For a point mass moving along a linear 1-D gravitational field, we can certainly say that: \(\dfrac{d}{dt} \left( \frac{1}{2} m v^2 + m gh\right) = 0\) cos we can say that energy is conserved
none of this answers yer question though!
Hey i say yer! :D
Yeah so how do we proceed from here?
So do we just plugin the numbers and solve for the velocity?
not using your equation. use some proper equations. let me show you !!
So We haven’t even made a proper equation yet?
in your mind, i think we have. trust me.
Ok so where do we go from here?
Jesus what am i gunna do if this question shows up in the exams? Uhg :/
Well, (b) is zero, ...... plucky troller, ...., and you can get (a) from the other stuff yah!
Other stuff? Jesus
Oh i get it
You found Jesus ?!?!
Like, in there?!?!
Wait what do you mean by....”(b) is zero” and no i didn’t find jesus. Jesus i’m Not even Christian
just teasing chillax and stop trolling
Ok
i think you should come out, too
Ok I’m here
awesome
So again.... we have 1/2 mv^2 + meh = 0
Where do we go from here?
are you seriously challenging me in a troll-war ?!?! you are Putin. OK?
What? I just want my help. That’s it.
Sorry i made a mistake up there....mgh*
Are you there?
You got trolled?
What? I thought i was getting help
And I think he was legit help.
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