Find variance of uniform distribution on [0,1] using moment generating function
\[M(t) = E(e^{tx}) = \int\limits_{0}^{1}e^{tx}dx = \frac{e^{t}-1}{t}\] I checked this and it's correct. Now then: \[M'(t) = \frac{te^t-e^t+1}{t^2}\] so \[E(X) = M'(0) = \lim_{t \rightarrow 0}\frac{te^t-e^t+1}{t^2} = \frac{1}{2}\] Variance formula is \(E(X^2) - E(X)^2\) And \[E(X^2) = M''(0)\] and we calculate \[M''(t) = \frac{t^2e^t-2te^t+2e^t-2}{t^3}\] and \[M''(0) = \lim_{t \rightarrow 0}\frac{t^2e^t-2te^t+2e^t-2}{t^3} = 0\] But then \[E(X^2) - E(X)^2 = 0 - \frac{1}{4} = -\frac{1}{4}\] which can't be right. I can show my work for every step but it takes too long to type so if there's one part where you think it's wrong please tell me.
Hopefully I can check your computational work. Let me take a look
BRO I AM AN IDIOT I calculated M''(0) wrong
M''(0) is 1/3 not 0
basically I was trying to use l'hospital's rule but instead of doing the derivative of top and bottom, I did the derivative of the entire thing instead
Unless i'm wrong why did you take the limit of M'(t) approaching 0 to find M'(0) if you had M'(t)? Other than that the lhopitals seems good
Oh lmao I was going to ask
cuz it's undefined at 0
Oh yeah got it. didn't see there
Okay..I got the same for the second derivative. let me see the M''(0)
I got 1/3 ur right
Is it supposed to be 1/3? I don't know the stat part, I don't think AP stat is enough for this
Nah AP stats is not enough. You also need calculus
As long as you learn how to use this symbol: \[\int\limits_{a}^{b}f(x)dx\] then that's enough
definitely bruv
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