A line passes through the points (p,a) and (p,-a) where p and a are real numbers. If p=0, what is the y-intercept? Explain your reasoning.
So, it gives us (p,a) and (p,-a), it says p=0
so, in theory you would replace p with 0, so (0,a) (0,-a)
then, given the knowledge that p AND a are real numbers, (1,2,3,4,etc) you would replace variable a with a number to give yourself graphable points
so, lets give variable a the number.... 3 for instance
(0,3) (0,-3)
now that you have that you can graph the points and create the line
NOTE: p=x and a=y
thats my thinking*
now, after graphing that, you notice that the line is directly on the y axis as x=0
meaning that the y-intercept is \(\color{cyan}{all~real~numbers}\), this means any numbers -3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3 etc.
so you can explain your answer from there. \(\color{violet}{--Problem~finished--}\)
@happypotato you understand this?
Yes! You explained it very well! Thank you so much!
This was very very helpful!!!!
@happypotatooo you're welcome, this was actully my first math question done as a Human Calculator, so it was fun to do
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