Is it possible to have a friction force of zero with a non-zero coefficient of friction?

Question

axie · Answer

The coefficient of friction depends on the objects that are causing friction. The value is usually between 0 and 1 but can be greater than 1. A value of 0 means there is no friction at all between the objects; such is possible with Superfluidity. https://simple.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coefficient_of_friction#:~:text=The%20coefficient%20of%20friction%20depends,such%20is%20possible%20with%20Superfluidity.

Tranquility · Answer

μ = f/N

The coefficient of friction is equal to the frictional force divided by the normal force.

If the frictional force is 0, what will the coefficient of friction be?

minustempo · Answer

It'd be 0.
Okay I was thinking of the wrong thing
The kinetic friction changes based on the normal force so if the coefficient of friction isn't 0 then the kinetic friction can't be 0 unless there is a normal force (but I'm assuming there is)
but the formula for the static friction is only for the maximum. And so when it's static it can be anything from 0 to the max.
Right?

Tranquility · Answer

Yes

Kinetic friction is what keeps an object moving (at a constant velocity) once it is already moving. While, the max static friction is the amount of force you need to overcome for the object to start moving.

In addition, another way to write that equation I shared earlier and you'll probably see it like this more often is

f = μ*N

So in a way, it is possible to have a friction force of 0 with a non-zero coefficient of friction BUT that would require a normal force of 0, which wouldn't be possible since the normal force isn't going to be zero as long as it's in contact with some surface